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Originally Posted by MMAmatt
if your taking that route then i`ll say; what is legal in one country isnt always legal in another so does the ideal of legality become a vacuous idea? id say no.
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That's why a US lawyer can't pack up, move to France, and start practicing law there. Both countries legal systems aspire to 'blind' justice, but the specifics will be quite different.
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im saying, and as well as the other guy that this is a commonal use of language, a large organization puts together rules and if you break them you are subject to punishment in a form of their "law" and thats why you get lawyers which specifically deal with employee and employer problems. because in the end if an employee wants to force a company to reconsider then they are able to provided they have some legal ground with in the justice system.
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And what I'm patiently explaining to you, is that according to that logic, an outsider, like ourselves, for example, has no business declaring what does or doesn't qualify as evidence for that company, since their rules and regulations are designed to meet their needs, not some absolute concept of justice. In the commission's case, maintaining fighter safety is the primary concern. Even if Sherk could somehow prove that he didn't knowingly violate the rules, he likely still wouldn't be allowed to fight until he proved he could abide by them.
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so i still say the term is valid.
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And it seems you always will.
